Tiếng Anh Đề Học Sinh Giỏi Anh 10 Tinh Hà Nam Năm 2017 - 2018

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

HÀ NAM

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT

NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018

Môn: Tiếng Anh 10

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

(Đề thi có 10 trang, thí sinh làm bài ngay vào đề thi này)

Điểm của bài thi

Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo

SỐ PHÁCH

Bằng số:

Giám khảo số 1:

Bằng chữ:

Giám khảo số 2:

SECTION A: LISTENING (20 points)

Part 1: Listen to the recording and write no more than TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)

West Bay Hotel- details of jobs

· Newspaper advert for 1. _____________

· Vacancies for waiter

· Can choose your 2. _____________ (must be the same each week)

· Pay:£ 5.50 per hour, including a 3. _____________

· A 4. _____________is provided in the hotel

· Total weekly pay: £ 231

· Dress: A white shirt and 5 _____________trousers (not supplied)

A 6 _____________ (supplied)

· Starting date: 7 _____________

· Call Jane 8 _____________ (service Manager) before 9 _____________tomorrow

· She will require a 10 _____________

Part 2: Choose the best answer to the question. (10 points)

Latin American studies

1. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted

A. To teach English there.

B. To improve his Spanish.

C. To learn about Latin American life.

1. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?

A. Construction

B. Agriculture

C. Tourism

1. Why did Paul change from one project to another?

A. His first job was not well organized.

B. He found doing the routine work very boring.

C. The work was too physically demanding.

1. What does Paul say about his project manager?

A. He let Paul do most of the work.

B. His plans were too ambitious.

C. He was very supportive of Paul.

1. Paul was surprised to be given

A. A computer to use.

B. So little money to live on.

C. An extension to his contract.

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)

Part 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.

(5 points)

1.

A. Headach es

B. Wish es

C. Finish es

D. Watch es

2.

A. Park ed

B. Laugh ed

C. Plough ed

D. Establish ed

3.

A. Gin g er

B. g esture

C. g ymnasium

D. g host

4.

A. R u bbish

B. S u burb

C. L u nch

D. Cons u me

5.

A. W oo d

B. S oo n

C. G oo d

D. F oo t

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.



Part 2: Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5 points)

1.

A. Cartoon

B. Open

C. Paper

D. Answer

2.

A. Routine

B. Begin

C. Office

D. Between

3.

A. Advisable

B. Admirable

C. Reliable

D. Desirable

4.

A. Entertainment

B. Problem

C. Holiday

D. Architect

5.

A. Argumentative

B. Hypersensitive

C. Psychological

D. Contributory

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (80 points)

Part 1: Choose the best answer which best completes each sentence. (15 points)

1. The meat looked very ______ to the dog.

A. Invited B. Invite C. Inviting D. Invitingly

2. I couldn 't ______what they were doing because they were so far away.

A. Bear out B. Make out C. Think out D. Try out

3. He ______ ever goes to bed before midnight.

A. Hardly B. Almost C. Nearly D. Scarcely

4. Whenever my father travels by plane, he buys some______ goods at the airport.

A. Free of charge B. Fax- free C. Free of duty D. Duty- free

5. They' re staying in rented accommodation for the time______.

A. Being B. Going C. Making D. Doing

6. Mrs. Mary demanded that the heater______ immediately. Her apartment was freezing.

A. Repaired B. Be repaired C. Repairs D. Is repaired

7. Peter: "Would you mind locking the door when you leave?" - Tom: "______".

A. Yes, I would B. Sure C. Why not? D. Not at all

8. "Computers certainly have changed the world". – "Yes, they make ______ to store information"

A. It easier for people B. Easier for people C. People easier D. It easily for people

9. Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, ______?

A. Will they B. Won 't it C. Won' t they D. Will it

10. She ______ me a very charming compliment on my painting.

A. Made B. Showed C. Paid D. Told

11. You look tired. Why don 't we______ and have a good rest?

A. Call its name B. Call it a day C. Call on D. Call off

12. As two teams left the football ground, the 100, 000______ gave them a standing ovation.

A. Spectators B. Viewers C. Audiences D. Bystanders

13. One' s fingerprints are ______ other person.

A. Different from B. Different from those of any

C. Differ from any D. Different from any

14. However _______ about the results, the children still talk merrily.

A. Disappointed are they B. Disappointing they are

C. Disappointment D. Disappointed they are

15. Jack: "in my opinion, action films are exciting". - Susan: "______"

A. You shouldn 't have said that B. What an opinion

B. Yes, so am I D. There is no doubt about it

Your answers:

1.

6.

11.

2.

7.

12.

3.

8.

13.

4.

9.

14.

5.

10.

15.

Part 2: Give the correct word form in each gap to complete the following passage. (20 points)

You may know that Asian, Middle Eastern and Mediterranean cultures have (1. Tradition ) ______used garlic in their dishes. What you may not know is that garlic was also thought of as a (2. Value ) ______ medicine by many ancient civilizations.

Today, (3. Profession ) ______ in this field of nutrition have come up with new information which is indeed quite surprising. (4. Appear ) ______, not only is garlic good for you but it also helps (5. Come ) ______ various illnesses.

The main disadvantage to eating garlic is of course bad (6. Breathe ) ______. Cooking it reduces the strong smell and eating parsley, which is a natural (7. Odor ) ______ also helps (8. Minimum ) ______the smell.

So, it' s time we took the benefits of garlic (9. Serious ) _____. Why not add it to some of your (10. Favour ) ______dishes!

Your answers:

1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part 3: Answer questions from 1 to 15 (15 points)

Question 1-5: Insert a suitable word in each blank (the first letter is given to guide you)

1. By the time we reach our d ______, it was already nightfall.

2. Someone with no s ______ of smell cannot taste food well either.

3. It might take him six months to g ______ over his illness.

4. Who gave you i ______ for such a wonderful character?

5. Lions and tigers that sleep in the day and hunt at night are n ______.

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Question 6- 10: Give the opposites of the words underlined in the following sentences

6. Do you like these earrings? They are hollow .

7. Don 't you see that this is very tough meat.

8. Let' s go somewhere else. This bar only serves alcoholic drinks

9. All the members in her family have fair hair

10. When I got home I realized that the butcher had overcharged me

Your answers:

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Question 11- 15: Write one word which can be used in both two sentences.

11. I have not attended the class because I 've been under the _____.

According to the ______forecast, it' s going to rain.

12. I met her by ______ at the airport.

This is my last ______, if next time I make a mistake, I 'm out.

13. Widespread deforestation ______ some rare animals to the verge of extinction.

His rude behavior often ______ me mad.

14. These machines have the advantage of ______ on electricity rather than petrol.

My father is ______ a campaign against hunting wild animals.

15. She is only 14 years old but her ______ age is 20 years old.

Many ______illnesses can be cured by special method.

Your answers:

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.



Part 4: There are 10 mistakes in the passage below. Underline the mistakes and correct them.

(10 points)

British parents are often complaining that their children spend too much time glued to the telly and not enough time on other activities as sports and reading. A survey recently carrying out on people' s viewing habits does not disprove this. It shows that young people in Britain spend on average 23 hours a week in front of the television, this works out at over three hours every day.

It is surprising, however, is the fact that the average adult watches even more 28 hours a week. We seem to have become a nation of addictors. Just about every household in the country has a television and over half have two or more. According to the survey, people nowadays don 't just watch television sitting in their living-room, they watch it in the kitchen and on bed as well.

The Education Minister said a few weeks before that Britain' s pupils should spend more time reading. Fortunately, parents are not setting a good example: Adults do more reading than young people. In fact, reading is at the bottom of their list of favorite pastimes. They would prefer listen to the radio, go to the cinema or hire a video to watch on their televisions at home.

0. Often à always

1..

2..

3..

4..

5..

6..

7..

8..

9..

10..

Part 5: Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (20 points)

For the last few years, my children (1. Go ) ______to a summer camp in northern Greece (2. Call ) ______Skouras Camp. They always seem to have a good time, so if you (3. Wonder ) ______what to do with the kids for three weeks this summer, you could do worse than (4. Send ) ______ them to this beautiful camp on the shores of the Aegean Sea. If your children, like mine, are keen on adventure, sports and good company, the Skouras Camp will keep them busy all day (5. Do ) ______the things they most enjoy. Skouras is an international camp with children from all over the world. My children (6. Make ) _____friends with children of their own age from Poland, China, Denmark and the United State. Naturally, they get lots of opportunities to practice their English as this is the only language (7. Speak ) _____. The camp is located in one of the most beautiful parts of Chalkidiki. It is huge (120, 000 square meters) and (8. Be ) ______just a stone 's throw away from the clear, blue Aegean Sea. It takes the children just five minutes to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot. The programme (9. Pack ) ______ with exciting activities such as horse riding and table tennis. Other sports include basketball, volleyball and athletics. The Camp (10. End ) _____with a sports contest in the last week which all parents are invited to attend.

Your answers:

1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (40 POINTS)

Part 1: Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. (20 points)

Special Education offers instruction which is specially designed to (1) _____ the unique needs and abilities of disabled or gifted children. Disable children have conditions (2) _____ adversely affect their progress in conventional education program. Gifted children, who demonstrate high capacity in intellectual, creative or artistic areas, may (3) _____ fare poorly in regular education programs. Special education services can help both disabled and gifted children make (4) _____ in education programs. Most children served by special education programs are (5) _____ the ages of 6 and 17.

In the United States, federal law requires states to identify and serve all children with (6) _____. Public education and health officials in the United States identified approximately 5.4 million infants, toddlers, children, and youth (7) _____disabled in 1994. That same year, the U. S Department of Education reported that 12.2 percent of all children below the age of 21 received some form of special education. The (8) _____frequently reported disabilities are speech or language impairments; mental (9) _____ and other developmental disorders; serious emotional disturbance; and special learning disorders such as memory disorders. Other disabilities (10) _____hearing, visual, or orthopedic impairments; autism; and traumatic brain injury. An increasing number of children in the United States are identified as having attention- deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and receive special education services.

Your answers:

1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part 2: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (10 points)

Famous explorer

Captain James Cook is remembered today for being one of Britain' s most famous explorers of the 18th century. Cook was (1 ) _______ most other explorers of the same period as he did not come from a wealthy family and had to work hard to (2 ) _______his position in life. He was lucky to be (3 ) _______by his father 's employer, who saw that he was a bright boy and paid for him to attend the village school. At sixteen, he started (4 ) _______.. in a shop in a fishing village, and this was a turning (5 ) _______in his life. He developed an interest in the sea and eventually joined the Royal Navy in order to see more of the world.

Cook was (6 ) _______by sailing, astronomy and the production of maps, and quickly became an expert in these subjects. He was also one of the first people to realize that scurvy, an illness often suffered by sailors, could be prevented by careful (7) ______to diet. It was during his (8) ______to the Pacific Ocean that Cook made his historic landing in Australia and the (9) ______discovery that New Zealand was two separate islands. He became a national hero and still (10) ______one today

1. A. Different B. Contrary C. Distinct D. Unlike
   
2. A. Manage B. Succeed C. Achieve D. Fulfil
   
3. A. Remarked B. Viewed C. Glanced D. Noticed
   
4. A. Trade B. Work C. Career D. Job
   
5. A. Moment B. Instant C. Point D. Mark
   
6. A. Keen B. Eager C. Fascinated D. Enthusiastic
   
7. A. Attention B. Organization C. Observation D. Selection
   
8. A. Travel B. Voyage C. Excursion D. Tour
   
9. A. Serious B. Superior C. Major D. Leading
   
10. A. Remains B. Stands C. Maintains D. Keeps

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.



Part 3 : Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10 points)

The development of jazz can be seen as part of the larger continuum of American popular music, especially dance music. In the twenties, jazz became the hottest new thing in dance music, much as ragtime had at the turn of the century, and as would rhythm and blues in the fifties, rock in the fifties, and disco in the seventies.

But two characteristics distinguish jazz from other dance music. The first is improvisation, the changing of a musical phrase according to the player' s inspiration. Like all artists, jazz musicians strive for an individual style, and the improvisation or paraphrase is a jazz musician 's main opportunity to display his or her individuality. In early jazz, musicians often improvised melodies collectively, thus creating a kind of polyphony. There was little soloing as such, although some New Orleans players, particularly cornet player Buddy Bolden, achieved local fame for their ability to improvise a solo. Later the idea of the chorus- long or multi-chorus solo took hold. Luis Armstrong' s instrumental brilliance, demonstrated through extended solos, was a major influence in this development. Even in the early twenties, however, some jazz bands had featured soloists. Similarly, show orchestras and carnival bands often included one or two such "get-off" musicians. Unimproved, completely structured jazz does exist, but the ability of the best jazz musicians to create music of great cohesion and beauty during performance has been a hallmark of the music and its major source of inspiration and change.

The second distinguishing characteristic of jazz is a rhythmic drive that was initially called "hot" and later "swing". In playing hot, a musician consciously departs from strict meter to create a relaxed sense of phrasing that also emphasizes the underlying rhythm. ( "Rough" tone and use of moderate vibrato also contributed to a hot sound) Not all jazz is hot; however, many early bands played unadorned published arrangements of popular songs. Still, the proclivity to play hot distinguished the jazz musician from other instrumentalists.

1. The passage answers which of the following question?

A. Which early jazz musicians most influenced rhythm and blues music?

B. What are the differences between jazz and other forms of music?

C. Why is dancing closely related to popular music in the United States?

D. What instruments comprised a typical jazz band of the 1920 's?

2. Which of the following appeared before jazz as a popular music for dancing?

A. Disco B. Rock C. Rhythm and blues D. Ragtime

3. According to the passage, jazz musicians are able to demonstrate their individual artistry mainly by?

A. Creating musical variations while performing

B. Preparing musical arrangements

C. Reading music with great skill

D. Being able to play all types of popular music

4. Which of the following was the function of " get-off " musicians?

A. Assist the other band members in packing up after a performance

B. Teach dance routines created for new music

C. Lead the band

D. Provide solo performances in a band or orchestra

5. Which two types of music developed around the same time?

A. Jazz/ rock B. Dance/ rhythm & blue

C. Rock/ rhythm & blue D. Jazz/ dance

6. Louis Armstrong was mentioned as an influential musician of _______.

A. "hot" or "swing" jazz B. Chorus- long jazz

C. Structured jazz. D. Soloing jazz

7. The word " consciously " in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_______.

A. Carelessly B. Easily

C. Periodically D. Purposely

8. The word "unadorned" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. Lovely B. Plain C. Disorganized D. Inexpensive

9. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

A. Improvisation B. Polyphony C. Cornet player D. Multi-chorus

10. The topic of the passage is developed primarily by means of _______.

A. Dividing the discussion into two major areas

B. Presenting contrasting points of views

C. Providing biographies of famous musician

D. Describing historical events in sequence

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

SECTION E: WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points)

1. I didn' t notice that I had the wrong umbrella until I got home.

ÀNot until..

2. He drove so badly that he kept having accidents.

ÀHe was..

3. Mrs. Taylor regretted buying the second- hand washing machine.

À Mrs. Taylor wishes..

4. I never thought that I would win a prize.

ÀIt had..

5. I left without saying goodbye as I didn 't want to disturb the meeting.

ÀRather..

Part 2: Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the word. (10 points)

1. It was easy for us to get tickets for the concert. (NO)

À..

2. There is no point in asking George to help. (WORTH)

À..

3. "Why don' t you buy a bigger house, Sue?" said Amos. (SUGGESTED)

À..

4. It 's possible that the building was burgled after midnight. (MAY)

À..

5. Many people attended this year' s festival. (TURNOUT)

À..



Part 3 : (30 points)

It is recommended that team learning should be widely encouraged. Some people believe that it 's beneficial to the development of education while some other people argue that self- learning is much better. Which way of learning do you prefer? In about 180- 200 words, write a paragraph to express your point of view.

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- The end -

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐÁP ÁN BIỂU ĐIỂM KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI

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NĂM HỌC 2017 - 2018

Môn: Tiếng Anh

SECTION A: LISTENING (20 points)

Part 1 : Listen to the recording and write no more than TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER for each answer. (1x 10= 10 points)

1. Temporary staff

2. Day off

3. Break

4. (free) meal

5. Dark

6. Jacket

7.28/ 28th June

8. Urwin

9. Noon/ midday/12.00 (pm)

10. Reference

Part 2 : Choose the best answer to the question. (2x5= 10 points)

1. C

2. C

3. A

4. C

5. A

SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)

Part 1 : Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.

(1x5=5 points)

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. D

5. B

Part 2 : Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (1x5=5 points)

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. D

SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (80 points)

Part 1: Choose the best answer which best completes each sentence. (1x15=15 points)

1. C

6. B

11. B

2. B

7. D

12. A

3. A

8. A

13. B

4. D

9. C

14. D

5. A

10. C

15. D

Part 2: Give the correct word form in each gap to complete the following passage. (2x10= 20 points)

1. Traditionally

6. Breath

2. Valuable

7. Deodorizer/ deodourizer

3. Professionals

8. Minimize

4. Apparently

9. Seriously

5. Overcome

10. Favourite/ favorite

Part 3: Answer questions from 1 to 15 (1x15= 15 points)

Question 1-5: Insert a suitable word in each blank (the first letter is given to guide you)

1. Destination

2. Sense

3. Get

4. Inspiration

5. Nocturnal

Question 6- 10: Give the opposites of the words underlined in the following sentences

6. Solid

7. Tender

8. Soft/ non-alcoholic

9. Dark

10. Undercharged

Question 11- 15: Write one word which can be used in both two sentences.

11. Weather

12. Chance

13. Drives

14. Running

15. Mental

Part 4: There are 10 mistakes in the passage below. Underline the mistakes and correct them.

(1x10= 10 points)

1. As à like

6. On à in

2. Carrying à carried

7. Before à ago

3. This à which

8. Fortunately à Unfortunately

4. It à what

9. More à less

5. Addictors àaddicts

10. Prefer à rather

Part 5: Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (2x10=20 points)

1. Have been going

6. Have made

2. Called

7. To be spoken

3. Are wondering

8. Is

4. Send

9. Is packed

5. Doing

10. Ends

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (40 POINTS)

Part 1: Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. (2x10=20 points)

1. Meet/ fulfil/ satisfy

6. Disabilities

2. That/ which

7. As

3. Also

8. Most

4. Progress

9. Retardation

5. Between

10. Include

Part 2: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (1x10=10 points)

1. D

2. C

3. D

4. B

5. C

6. C

7. A

8. B

9. C

10. A



Part 3: Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (1x10=10 points)

1. B

2. D

3. A

4. D

5. C

6. B

7. D

8. B

9. A

10. A

SECTION E: WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (2x5=10 points)

1. Not until I got home did I notice that I had the wrong umbrella.

2. He was such a bad driver that he kept having accident.

3. Mrs. Taylor wishes (that) she hadn' t bought the second- hand washing machine.

4. It had never crossed my mind that I would win a prize.

5. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.

Part 2: Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the word. (2x5=10 points)

1. We had no difficulty (in) getting tickets for the concert.

2. It is not worth asking George to help.

3. Amos suggested that Sue should buy/ buy a bigger house.

4. The building may have been burgled after midnight.

5. This year 's festival attracted a record/ high turnout.

Part 3: (30 points)

The student' s task is assessed according to the general criteria of writing skills:

• Content: 50% of total mark (15 points) - a provision of main ideas and reasonable details
  
• Language: 30% total mark (9 points) - a variety vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted school students
  
• Presentation: 20% of total mark (6 points) - coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted school students.